Management Question Bank E1 E2

Management Question Bank

Group Performance Management system

Question 1

Which is not one of the BBSC perspective:
(A) The learning and growth perspective
(B) The customer perspective
(C) The staff perspective
(D) The financial perspective

Correct Answer :

Question 2

FPMS related to the:
I) CM II) CFA III) CSC IV) Indoor V) Outdoor
(A) Only I, II, III
(B) Only IV, V
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) All

Correct Answer :

Question 3

FPMS full form:
(A) Financial Performance Management system
(B) Field Performance Management system
(C) Financial Practice Management system
(D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 4

IPMS full form:
(A) Individual Performance Management System
(B) Identical Practice Management System
(C) Individual Practice Management System
(D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Customer satisfaction will be assessed through a customer survey administered by
(A) Circle head
(B) GM (CFA)
(C) External third party agency
(D) Management committee

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Evaluation of groups on the basis of KPI's is done at corporate office, territorial circle, SSA and non-territorial circles by respectively:
(A) CMD, CAM, PGM and Director & Exp. Director
(B) Director & ED, CGM, PGM and GM (PD)
(C) CMD, Management committee, CGM and Director & ED
(D) Director & ED, CGM, Management Committee and GM (PD)

Correct Answer :

Question 7

BBSC concept was adapted by BSNL in:
(A) 2001
(B) 2003
(C) 2004
(D) 2006

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Full form of BBSC:
(A) Behind Business Success Carrier
(B) Business Better Suitable Card
(C) Business Balanced Strategy Creation
(D) Balanced Business Score Card

Correct Answer :

Question 9

PMS is a:
(A) HR tool
(B) Management tool
(C) Both
(D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Full form of PMS:
(A) Performance Marking Sys
(B) Performance Making Sys
(C) Priority making sys
(D) Performance Management sys

Correct Answer :

Leadership and Team Building

Question 1

Characteristic of good team
   (I) clear objectives           (II) Roles of all members clearly understood
   (III) appreciation of each other’s quality   (IV) individual goals and objectives
(A)I and II    (B)II and III   (C)I,II and III   (D)all of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Match the following
   (I) contingency theory (1) success depends upon suitable leadership behavior
   (II) transactional theory (2) leadership styles used at different times depending upon circumstances
   (III) behavioral theory (3) focus on the management of the organization
(A) I-1 ; II-2 ; III-3        (B) I-2 ; II-3 ; III-1   (C) I-3 ; II-1 ; III-2 (D) I-1 ; II-3 ; III-2

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Theory of leadership is
(A) trait theory (B) conditional theory (C) action theory (D) inspiring theory

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Match the following
   (I) autocratic leadership    (1) decentralized authority and allow the subordinate to share his power
   (II) participative leadership   (2) leadership responsibilities are shared by all
   (III) free-rein leadership   (3) complete control over the subordinators
   (A)I-3 ; II-1 ; III-2   (B)I-2 ; II-3 ; III-1   (C)I-1 ; II-2 ; III-3   (D)I-3 ; II-2 ; III-1

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Roles of middle managers are:-
    (I)the “playing coach “roles       (II) the “bilingual” task of translating goals
   (III) the implication of having full responsibilities
   (A) only 1        (B) only 2         (C) only 1,3        (D) all

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Correct statement is:-
   I)the leader uses positive approach “we will work it out together, what you will suggest”
   II) accomplish the work and develop for employees
       (A) only 1        (B) only 2        (C) both        (D) none

Correct Answer :

Question 7

What is not the leadership quality?
(A) the leader fixes the breakdown (B) the leadership fixes the blame for breakdown
(C) the leader says the "let's go" (D) the leader commands respect

Correct Answer :

Question 8

What is not the leadership quality?
(A) the leader shows what is wrong (B) the leader knows how to do it
(C) the leadership shows who is wrong (D) the leader radiates love

Correct Answer :

Question 9

What is not the leadership quality?
(A) The leader depends on goodwill (B) the leader inspire the employees
(C) the leader says the "we" (D) the leadership depends on authority

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Roles of a leader are
(I) guiding peoples (II) team building (III) maintaining discipline (Iv) spoke person
(A) Only 1, 2 (B) only 3, 4 (C) only 3 D) all of the above

Correct Answer :

Time Management

Question 1

Pit fall for Time management is/are ?
(A) Planning More (B) Less Capability (C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Pit fall for Time management is/are ?
(A) Too Many Goals (B) Too Many Task (C) Unorganized Efforts (D) All

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Beware of ?
(A) Enemy within (B) Enemy Without (C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Success is ?
(A) Thought + Vision (B) Proper Plan+ Action (C) Plan + Need (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Time management Become waste of time when ?
(A) Due to Urgency (B) Due to Thought (C) Due to Without Goal (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 6

How to assist yourself to do time management? Correct statement is/ are:
(A)   Use Technology
(B)   Switch Tasks
(C)   Communicate Effectively
(D)   All of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 7

How to assist yourself to do time management? Correct statement is/ are:
1.   ENSURE TIME FOR PLAY .
2.   Your plan should be flexible.
   (A) Only 1.       (B) Only 2.       (C) Both       (D) none.

Correct Answer :

Question 8

How to assist yourself to do time management?
1.   Do Not copy others
2.   Avoid Argument
3.   Avoid Gossip & Rumor.
   (A) Only 1 & 2.       (B) Only 2 & 3.       (C) Only 1 & 3.       (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

How to assist yourself to do time management?
1.   Use Phone, fax, calculator, diary etc - to reduce repetitive work and for keeping data
2.   Take breaks after some time & come back to them after such breaks
3.   Be clear with words
   (A) Only 1 & 2.       (B) Only 2 & 3.       (C) Only 1 & 3.     (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Inside enemy is:
(A) Interruption (B) Habits (C) Delayed Transport (D) Phone calls

Correct Answer :

Capital Budgeting & Revenue Budgeting

Question 1

. About Economy Measures taken in BSNL:

1. The prescribed expenditure ceilings for holding seminars, conferences, workshops etc. should be enforced and a 10% cut on the budgetery allocation.

2. There will be a complete ban on holding of meetings and conferences at five star hotels.

3. No travel on government account by air will take place by first class.

(A) Only 1 & 3 is correct (B) Only 2 & 3 is correct

C. All are correct. (D) None of the above.

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Which statement is correct?

A. Circles are required to sent their cash requisition to BSNL CO on 7^th, 17^th and 27^th of each month.

B. DDOs are authorized to incur expenditure out of the revenue collected.

C. Both are correct.

D. None of the above is correct.

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Mark the wrong statement:

A. The concept of cash budget is futuristic in approach whereas cash flow statement is based on historical (past) data.

B. Fifteen Percent of telephone revenue realization based on targets communicated will be authorized for withdrawals towards service tax payment.

C. Expenditure under Working Expenses other than salaries and wages will be restricted to proportionate periodical allotment unless specified for unusual demand.

Budget allotments are taken as base for determining of cash withdrawals.

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Wrong statement regarding Compilation of Capital works Program is

A. Capital works program shall be compiled only for works costing Rs.20 crores.

B. The details are to be submitted to BBF division of Corporate Office.

C. The details are to be submitted by the respective Circles every month.

D. Corporate Office to monitor the progress of ongoing and new projects costing more than 20 crores.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Estimate of Revenue is usually taken into consideration:
(A) on the basis of number of telephone lines (B) on the basis of number of WLL lines
(C) on the basis of number of CMTS (D) all of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Which statement is wrong for preparation of RE & BE:

(A) Figures in statement in Thousands of Rupees for working expenses & in Lakhs of rupees for Revenue Receipt.

(B) Estimate of license fee & spectrum charges payable is to be exhibited separately.

(C) In case of OTA particularly, additional funds be sought.

(D) Very limited scope of additional allotment at RE stage under working expense.

Correct Answer :

Question 7

What is revised estimate?
(A) Actual Expenditure for 7 month (Apr to Oct) & Estimated Expenditure for 5 month (Nov to Mar)
(B) Actual Expenditure for 5 month (Nov to Mar) & Estimated Expenditure for 7 month (Apr to Oct)
(C) Actual Expenditure for 5 month (Apr to Aug) & Estimated Expenditure for 7 month (Sep to Mar)
(D) Actual Expenditure for 7 month (Sep to Mar) & Estimated Expenditure for 5 month (Apr to Aug)

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Term revised estimate is used for:
(A) Revenue Budgeting. (B) Capital Budgeting. (C) Both. (D) None.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Types of Budget in BSNL is/are:
(A) Capital budget. (B) Revenue Budget. (C) Both. (D) None.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Budget contains:
(A) Only Financial Matter. (B) Only Non-Financial Matter. (C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Cost Management

Question 1

Correct statement is/are:

1. Marginal Cost is the aggregate of variable costs i.e. prime cost plus variable
overhead.

2. Relevant Cost: These refer to the costs relevant for a specific purpose or situation.

3. Shut Down Costs is the Costs of idle plant.

4. Historical Costs: These are the actual costs of acquiring assets or producing goods or services.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Correct statement is/are:

1. Fixed Cost refers to the cost which does not vary with the change in the volume of activity in the short run.

2. Variable Cost refers to the cost of elements which tends to directly vary with the volume of activity.

3. Semi-variable Costs contain both fixed and variable elements. They are partly affected by fluctuation in the level of activity.

(A) Only 1, 2. (B) Only 2, 3. (C) Only 1, 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Correct statement is/are:

1. Production Cost is the cost of all items involved in the production or a product
or service.

2. Administration Costs are the expenses incurred for general management
of an organization.

3. Selling Costs are indirect costs related to selling of products or services
and include all indirect cost in sales management for the organization.

4. Distribution Costs are the costs incurred in handling a product from the
time it is completed in the works until it reaches the ultimate consumer.

(A) Only 1, 2 & (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Correct statement is/are:

1. Material Cost is the cost of material of any nature used for the purpose of production of a product or a service.

2. Labour Cost means the payment made to the employees, permanent or temporary, for their services.

3. Direct Cost an expenditure can be allocated to a cost center or cost object by economically feasible way then it is called direct cost.

4. Indirect Cost an expenditure cannot be allocated to a cost center or cost object
by economically feasible way then it is called indirect cost.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

About Performa’s required to be prepared find the wrong statement:

(A) Performa 'A' is to be maintained by only 'Operation cost centres.

(B) Performa 'B' is to be maintained for compiling the operation cost of various 'service products'.

(C) Performa C is for (i) Quantitative information (ii) Cost Information.

(D) Performa D is for allocation and apportionment of operation cost, service cost and other costs to service-products.

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Match the following:

Service Products Service Product Code

I. Basic Telephony a. 04

II. Cellular Mobile b. 09

III. Internet Services c. 12

IV. Value Added Service d. 01

(A) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c

(C) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c (D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Match the following:

Service Cost Center	Function
1. Corporate Office	A. Administration planning
2. Telecom Circles Regional Maintenance Circle Office TCO, Kolkata	B. Repair & Maintenance
3. National Centre of Electronic Switching	C. Equipment & Network Development
4. Project Circles	D. Administration Operation Planning Project Execution

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c

(C) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c (D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c

Correct Answer :

Question 8

. Objectives of Costing System

1) To compile Cost Centre wise cost information.

2) To determine the cost of different service-products.

3) To identify profitable/non-profitable operation centers.

Correct statement is/are:

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Correct statement is/are:

1) Cost Audit is the verification of cost accounts and a check on the adherence to the cost accounting plan.

2) Cost Allocation is the process of charging the full amount of cost to a particular cost center.

3) Cost Apportionment is the process of splitting up an item of cost and charging it to the cost centers on an equitable basis.

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

. About Cost Accounting is/are:

1) It is the process of accounting for costs.

2) It embraces the accounting procedures relating to recording of all income and expenditure.

3) It is the formal mechanism by means of which costs of products or services are ascertained and controlled.

Correct statement is/are:

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Communication Skills

Question 1

Identify the disadvantages of oral Communication ?

(A) Immediate response is possible

(B) Listeners reaction is observed

(C) A considerable amount of Time & Money is Spent

(D) Both A & B

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Which is not the type of Communication Channel ?

(A) Speaking, Listening, (B) Writing, Reading (C) Visualizing, Observing (D) Thinking, Acting

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Exchange of ideas between two or more persons is ?

(A) Understanding (B) Telling (C) Communication (D) Listening

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Ways of overcoming communication barriers are: -
I) Feedback II) Use repetition III) being positive IV) select the best location

(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) I, II and III only (D) all of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 5

communication barriers are:-
I)Jargon II)age III)lack of empathy IV)semantic

(A)I and IV (B)II and III (C)I,II and III only (D)all of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Find the odd one:

(A)Competitive---------------------------Attentive listening

(B)Passive---------------------------------Attentive listening

(C)Active-----------------------------------Reflective listening

(D)Competitive---------------------------Combative listening

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Modes of listening are:
                I) competitive listening
                II) passive listening
                III) active listening
                (A) Only 1 & 2.                   (B) Only 2 & 3.                   (C) Only 1 & 3.                   (D) All

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Reasons of verbal communication breakdown are
                I) physical barriers                           II) poor expression                          III) emotion
                IV) communication chain              V) premature evaluation
                (A) I, II, III and IV                              (B) I, III and IV                   (C) I, II, III            (D) all of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 9

find the incorrect statement
                (A) source, the medium and the receiver must be energized
                (B) source must be transmit distortion less message
                (C) medium should be tuned to the source
                (D) medium should not add any distortion

Correct Answer :

Question 10

What is not essentials of communication?
(A) Source (B) money (C) medium (D) receiver

Correct Answer :

Energy Conservation and Fire Safety

Question 1

Find the incorrect one:

Class of Fire	Suitable fire extinguisher
I. CLASS A	Water, Foam
II. Class B	Foam, dry powder
III. CLASS C	Halon
IV. CLASS D	CO2

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Classification of fire protection measures in telecom buildings are:

(A) Passive fire protection (B) Active fire protection

(C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Energy Management & its objectives are:

I. To minimize energy cost/waste without affecting production and quality.

II. To minimize environment effect.

A. Only I (B) Only II (C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Triangle of fire shows:

I. The presence of a fuel, or combustible substances.

II. The presence of oxygen (usually as air) or other supporter of combustion.

III. The attainment and maintenance of a certain minimum temperature (ignition temperature)

A. Only I, II, III (B) Only I, II (C) Only II, III (D) All of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Incorrect statement is:

I. An Energy Audit involves measuring the actual energy used in the plant, comparing it with an estimate of the minimum energy required to undertake the process.

II. Low Tension Supply is used for Single-phase power supply at 23O Volts A.C. and Three-phase power supply at 415 Volts A.C.

III. High Tension Supply is used for power supply at 11 or 22 or 33 Kilo Volts A.C. (11 KV/22 KV/ 33 KV).

(A) Only I, II, III (B) Only I, II (C) Only II, III (D) All of the above

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Incorrect statement is:

(A)Switching off or de- energizing the standby transformer from the primary side helps in saving the no-load loss of the standby transformer.

(B)The higher is the temperature maintained in an Air-conditioned room, the higher is the energy consumption.

(C)Efforts should be made to decrease the air-conditioned area by way of Full height partition and closing.

(D)Lighting Load contributes for approximately 2O% energy consumption.

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Correct the statement:

I. A part of the total energy supplied is used to establish the magnetic field and this energy is called as reactive energy or power.

II. The consumer can utilize the reactive power as useful energy.

III. The power factor of a system indicates what portion of the total energy can be utilized to produce useful work.

IV. A poor power factor implies higher reactive energy flow.

A. Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 3 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Exchanges, which are having transformer sub-stations, are billed for electricity in two parts. Two parts are:

I. First part is based on the maximum demand (MD) recorded (in KVA) during the month or the Contract Demand (KVA), whichever is Lower.

II. Second part is based on the actual consumption in terms of units of Electricity (in KWh).

III. In Case where the maximum demand reached is less than contract demand EB authorities will make bill for contract demand.

A. Only I, III (B) Only II, III (C) Only I, II (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Correct statement is/are:

I. Contract Demand means a demand in KVA mutually agreed between the supply company and the consumer.

II. For the highest value of electricity demanded or taken from the supply company or the electricity board is called the Maximum Demand (MD).

A. Only I (B) Only II (C) Both (D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Energy Core Group has been constituted at corporate office headed by

A. Director (Plg & NS) (B) Director (CFA) (C) Director (CM) (D) Director (CM)

Correct Answer :

RTI Act 2005

Question 1

Correct statement regarding RTI act status in BSNL is/are :

A. Initially BSNL designated Appellate, PIO and APIO at corporate office and all Circles with all SSAs designating APIOs.

B. Later PIO and Appellate officers are being designated in SSAs also.

C. The list of BSNL PIOs/APIOs is available on BSNL website.

D. All are correct.

Correct Answer :

d) D

Question 2

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is:

(A) Every PIO will be liable for fine of Rs. 250 per day, up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000/- for malafidely denying information.
(B) The Information Commission (IC) at the Centre and the State levels has the power to impose this penalty.

(C) The Information Commission can also recommend disciplinary action for violation of the law against an erring PIO.

(D) For the purpose of penalty, concept of deemed APIO is used.

Correct Answer :

d) D

Question 3

Correct statement regarding RTI Act is/are:

I. 30 days from the date of application

II. 48 hours for information concerning the life and liberty of a person

III. 5 days shall be added to the above response time, in case the application for information is given to Assistant Public Information Officer.

IV. If the interests of a third party are involved then time limit will be 40 days

A. Only I, II, III (B) Only I, III, IV (C) Only I, IV ((D) All of the above

Correct Answer :

d) D

Question 4

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is:

                (A) PIO collects sought information from concerned sections
                (B) APIO disposes the application by applying various provisions of the act
                (C) The act specifies category of information which is exempted from disclosure

(D) Exempted information includes pertaining to National security, parliament privileges

Correct Answer :

b) B

Question 5

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is:

(A) No fees are charged from people living below the poverty line.
(B) Applicant must be provided information free of cost if the PIO fails to comply with the
prescribed time limit.
(C) APIO has to forward all request/appeals within seven days to appropriate authority.
(D) PIO is given 30 days to process and dispose the application.

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 6

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is:

                (A) There is a fee for inspection of document
                (B) There is no fee for first hour of inspection, but after that, one has to pay Rs 5 for every
                     subsequent hour or fraction thereof.
                (C) Applicant can deposit fee only in cash
                (D) Applicant can seek review of the decision on fees charged by the PIO.

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is:

A. Applicant is required to pay the fee for central government departments.

B. Different states have prescribed same fees.

C. Cost of information is also charged

D. One has to pay Rs 2 per page of information provided for central Gov. Department.

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Incorrect statement regarding RTI Act is/ are:

I.Any applicant can submit application on plain paper to APIO only.

II. No reason for seeking information needs to be specified in the application.

III. The name and contact details of applicant, addressed public authority and detail of information sought in the application are sufficient to seek information.

(A) Only I, II (B) Only I (C) Only III ((D) All of the above

Correct Answer :

b) B

Question 9

Match the following:

1.Public Authority	I. Receive RTI applications, process them and dispose
2.PIO	II. An officer senior in rank to PIO
3.Appellate Authority	III. Applicants aggrieved at the decisions of Appellate authority are allowed to approach.
4.APIO	IV. PSUs and NGOs
5.Information Commission	V. Forwarding cases to appropriate authority

(A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-V, 5-III (B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-V, 5-III

(C) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-V, 5-I (D) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III, 5-V

Correct Answer :

a) A

Question 10

Objectives of RTI act are:

I. Make government machinery accountable

II. Contain corruption

III. Promote Transparency

A. Only I (B) Only II (C) Only I, III ((D) All of the above

Correct Answer :

d) D

Official Language Policy

Question 1

Correct Answer :

Question 2

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Question 3

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Question 4

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Correct Answer :

BSNL CDA Rules

Question 1

Major Penalties are:

1. Reduction to a lower time scale of pay, grade, post or service which shall ordinarily be a bar to the promotion of the employee to the time scale of pay, grade, post or service from which he was reduced.

2. Compulsory retirement .

3. Dismissal from service which shall ordinarily be a disqualification for future employment under the Govt. or the Corporation/ Company owned or controlled by the Government.

4. Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under Govt/or the Corporation / Company owns or controlled by the Govt.

(A) All. (B) Only 2,3 & 4. (C) Only 1,2 & 4. (D) Only 1,2& 3.

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Minor Penalties are:

1. Censure.

2. Withholding of promotion.

3. Withholding of increments of pay with or without cumulative effect.

4. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay for a period not exceeding five years, with cumulative effect and not adversely affecting his pension / terminal benefits.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3 (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Correct statement for Rule -21 is /are :

1. No employee shall, except with the previous sanction of the competent authority, enter into any transaction concerning any immovable or movable property with a person or firm.

2. Every employee shall report within a month to the competent authority every transaction concerning movable property owned or held by him only in his own name.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) None.

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Incorrect statement regarding Rule 15 - Gift is :

(A)No employee shall accept or permit any member of his family or any other person acting on his behalf, to accept any gift.

(B)Occasions such as weddings, anniversaries, funerals or religious functions gifts is Rs.6,000/- in case of Group „B‟ and above up to JAG category.

(C)Gift Received from foreign dignitaries/firms may be retained by the recipient.

(D)When more than one gift has been received from the same person/firm within a period of twelve months the matter shall be reported to the competent authority.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Misconduct does includes:

1. Gambling within the premises of the Company.

2. Smoking within the premises of the Company where it is prohibited.

3. Collection with the permission of the Competent Authority of any money within the premises of the company except as sanctioned by any law of the land for the time being in force or rules of the Company.

4. Sleeping while on duty.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (D)Only 2, 3 & 4. (C)Only 1, 2 & 4. (D)all.

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Misconduct does includes:

1. Sabotage or damage to any property of the Company.

2. Acting in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the Company.

3. Interference or tampering with any safety devices installed in or about the premises of the Company or violating the safety or environmental regulations in or about the premises of the Company.

4. Drunkenness or riotous or disorderly or indecent behaviour in the premises of the Company or outside such premises where such behaviour is related to or connected with the employment.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Misconduct does includes:

1. Willful insubordination or disobedience, whether or not in combination with others, of any lawful and reasonable order of his superior.

2. Absence without leave or over-staying the sanctioned leave without sufficient grounds or proper or satisfactory explanation.

3. Habitual late or irregular attendance.

4. Neglect of work or negligence in the performance of duty including malingering or slowing down of work.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Misconduct does includes :

(1) Theft, fraud or dishonesty in connection with the business or property of the Company, or of property of another person within the premises of the Company.

(2) Taking or giving bribes or any illegal gratification or indulging in corrupt practices.

(3) Possession of pecuniary resources or property disproportionate to the known sources of

income by the employee or on his behalf by another person, which the employee cannot satisfactorily account for.

(4) Furnishing false information regarding name, age, father’s name, qualifications, ability or previous service or any other matter germane to the employment at the time of employment or during the course of employment.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Incorrect statement is :

(A)Competent Authority means the authority empowered by CMD by any general or special rule.

(B)Disciplinary Authority means the authority specified in the Schedule to impose any of the penalties specified in Rule 33 of BSNL Conduct.

(C) “Inquiring Authority‟ or “Inquiring Officer‟ means any person or persons empowered by the
Competent Authority from time-to-time under these Rules to inquire into misconduct.

(D) “Reviewing Authority‟ means the authority specified in the Schedule attached to these rules
and empowered to function as such.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Incorrect statement is:

(A)BSNL CDA Rules shall come into force w.e.f 10^th June 2006.

(B)These Rules shall apply to all the employees of the BSNL.

(C)Appellate Authority means, the authority specified in this behalf in the Schedule appended to these Rules, and empowered to function as such.

(D)Appointing Authority means the authority empowered to make appointments to the service,
grade or post.

Correct Answer :

Gender Issues

Question 1

Additional Practices to be Undertaken by the Employer is /are ?

A. Awareness of female employees should be created

B. Support and preventive action should be taken against third party harassment .

C. Setup a redress mechanism/ complaints committee.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Additional Practices to be Undertaken by the Employer is /are ?

A. Employer shall initiate criminal proceedings in accordance of complaint

B. Disciplinary action should be initiated by the employer

C. Workers initiatives should be allowed

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Which year Vishaka Guidelines were used / recognised?

(A)1992 (B) 1996 (C) 1997 (D) 1998

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Practices to be undertaken by the complaint committee is/are:

1. The Complaints Committee must make an annual report to the Government department concerned of the complaints and action taken by them.

2. It should ensure prominent display of names and contact numbers of the members of the complaints committee.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Procedure for complaint is/are:

1. Any person aggrieved shall prefer a complaint before the Complaints Committee within 30 days from the date of occurrence of the alleged incident.

2. The complaint shall contain all the material and relevant details concerning the alleged sexual harassment.

3. Complainant not to disclose her identity for any particular reason.

(A) Only 1 & 2 . (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Mandatory prerequisites for Complaints Committee are:

1. Not less than half of its members should be women.

2. Complaints Committee should involve a third party, either NGO or other body who is familiar with the issue of sexual harassment.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none

Correct Answer :

Question 7

Mandatory prerequisites for Complaints Committee is/are:

1. Minimum Three members.

2. The Complaints Committee should be headed by a woman.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none.

Correct Answer :

Question 8

About sexual harassment found the correct statement is/are:

1. Physical contact and advances.

2. A demand or request for sexual favours.

3. Sexually coloured remarks.

4. Any other physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1,2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Correct statement is/are :

1. Vishaka guidelines apply to only organized sector.

2. To all women whether working part time, on contract or in voluntary/honorary capacity.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Correct statement is/are:

1. According to the Protection of Human Right Act, 1995 "human rights" mean the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution.

2. In India, it was only in 1997 that sexual harassment was for the first time recognised by the Supreme Court as human rights violation and gender based systemic discrimination that affects women’s Right to Life and Livelihood.

3. Vishaka Guidelines, for resolution and prevention of sexual harassment at workplace.

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Customer Care, Citizen Charter of BSNL

Question 1

Correct Statement regarding complaint handling at different stages :

(A) The DGM concerned of the area shall be able to access status within 5 days for NTC/2 days for shift and 20 hrs for provision and withdrawal of add-on facility.

(B) SSA head for taking appropriate action within 7 days for NTC/3 days for shift and 24 hrs for provision/ withdrawal of add-on facility.

(D) None

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Which of the following types of services will be offered through Customer care portal:

1. Cell One services.

2. IN Services.

3. Leased line.

4. ISDN/Broadband services.

5. Complaint handling.

(A) only 1,3,5 (B) only 2,3,4 (C) only 1,4,5 (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 3

Match the followings:

1. Web Conferencing(CEPL) Toll Free	(A) 1800-425 1425
2. E-Track Fleet Management Solution	(B) 1800 111 233
3. Public Grievance Cells: Telecom Circle HQ‘s	(C) 12728
4. Public Grievance Cells SSA HQ‘s	(D) 12727

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c

(C) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c (D) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-d

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Match the followings:

1. For Broadband &Internet service	(A) 1800-425-1957
2. For MPLS & Other Data services	b)1800-424-1600
3. Sancharnet Internet Help desk service	(C) 1800-233-3334
4. Managed Network Services	(D) 1957

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c

(C) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d (D) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

Correct Answer :

Question 5

What is Convergent Billing System in BSNL?

(A) Annually bill payment.

(B) Single bill for two different parties.

(C) A customer will be able to get single bill for all services availed from BSNL.

(D) None of the above.

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 6

How to register DNC:

1. SMS 53733 DNC ACT.

2. Call 1500, 1909.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none.

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 7

Match the Followings:

I. Front office operations	a. Interaction with other companies and partners.
II. Back office operations	b. Direct interaction with customers.
III. Business relationships	c. Operations that ultimately affect the activities of the front office.

(A) I-b, II-c, III-a (B) I-a, II-c, III-b (C) I-b, II-a, III-c (D) I-c, II-b, III-a

Correct Answer :

a) A

Question 8

Abbreviation :

1) CRM : Customer Relationship Management.

2) CAF : Customer Application Form.

3) CLTV : Concept of Customer Life Time Value.

4) KAM : Key Account Manager.

5) NAM : National Application Manager.

Which are correct ?

(A) All Above (B) Only 1,2,3 & 5 (C) Only 1,2,3,4 (D) None

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 9

Qualities of Backend staff is/are:

1. Proper skills, in depth knowledge is must for this category to ensure proper working of the technical and administrative systems.

2. They are the decision makers, the planners, the developers.

3. Majority of the work force of a company falls in this category especially in service sector.

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

d) D

Question 10

Match the following:

1. Customer wants all queries to be solved at one place	(A) Across all touch points
2. Customer wants they should get consistency.	(B) Single Window Concept.
3. Customer wants the information should be available on fingertips.	(C) DSA
4. Customer wants Service to be provided at their doorsteps	(D) IVRS.

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b (B) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

(C) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d (D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c

Correct Answer :

Sales Management

Question 1

About DSA the correct statement is/are:

1. Any 8^th pass can become a DSA.

2. Retired BSNL employees/spouses can also become DSA.

3. Any number of DSAs can be appointed by SSA Heads.

4. Any other outlets such as shopping malls etc. can also be appointed as DSA to sell BSNL services with the approval of concerned GM.

(A)Only 1 & 3. (B)Only 2 & 3. (C)Only 1 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Find the correct statement is/are:

1. BSNL has put in place Franchisee Sales & Distribution policy 2009.

2. Well defined geographical area for franchisee called as primary area.

3. Franchisee shop to open 0800h to 2200h.

4. Franchisees are appointed through EoI route by respective SSAs.

5. Franchisee can appoint any number of sub franchisees/retailers on non- exclusive basis.

(A)only 1,3,5 (B)only 2,3,4 (C)only 1,4,5 (D)al

Correct Answer :

Question 3

About sales management in BSNL correct statement is/are:

1. CFA and CM cater to retail selling whereas Enterprise deals with corporate / enterprise customers.

2. The concept of commercial officer, CSCs and Marketing agents was expanded in October 2002.

3. In October 2009, as part of Project Shikhar CM and CFA verticals have dedicated GM/DGM rank officers at Corporate as well as Circle level to plan, manage and effect retail sales.

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 4

Retail sales is /are:

1. Consists of the sale of goods or merchandise from a fixed location.

2. Include subordinated services, such as delivery.

3. Purchasers may be businesses.

4. Retailers are at the end of the supply chain.

Correct statement is/are:

(A)Only 1, 2 & 3. (B)Only 2, 3 & 4. (C)Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Incorrect statement about Enterprise selling is / are:

1. Seller goes to Buyer.

2. Big ticket, big value customised selling.

3. Large Volume, Big Margin.

4. Determined by the Buyer.

(A)Only 1 &2. (B)Only 1. (C)Only 3 (D) only 4.

Correct Answer :

Question 6

Correct statement about retail sale is/are:

1. Buyer goes to seller

2. Small value small selling

3. Small Volume, small margin

4. Determined by the seller

Correct statement is/are:

(A)Only 1, 2 & 4. (B)Only 2, 3. (C)Only 1, & 4. (D)Only 1, 2, 3.

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 7

Correct statement is/are:

1. Qualification ratio measures the success at bringing new sales opportunities through the initial relationship-building and qualification process.

2. Proposal ratio measures the number of proposals presented against the number of viable prospects you've identified.

3. Closing ratio measures the number of closed sales made against the outstanding proposals.

(A)Only 1 & 2. (B)Only 2 & 3. (C)Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

d) D

Question 8

Incorrect statement is/are:

1. Contact ratio is achieved by dividing the number of contacts actually made to total number of call attempts.

2. Lead Generation ratio is the new leads that are converted into sales opportunities.

3. Lead conversion ratio is found by dividing number of sales leads by the number of sale contacts.

(A) Only 1 &2. (B) Only 2 & 3 (C) only 1 & 3 (D) none.

Correct Answer :

b) B

Question 9

Match the followings:

I. Sales cycle	(a)pattern, plan or actual achievement of conversion of prospects into sales, pre-enquiry and then through the sales cycle
II. Sales forecast	(b)Describes the time and/or process between first contact with the customer to when the sale is made.
III. Sales funnel	(c) planning optimum and most cost-effective coverage of sales
IV. Territory planning	(d)predictions that sales people and sales managers are required to make about future business levels.

(A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (B) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d (C) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c (D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-a

Correct Answer :

c) C

Question 10

Sales Process is / are:

1. Prospecting

2. Pre-approach & Approach

3. Overcoming objections

4. Closing and order

(A)Only 1, 2 & 3. (B)Only 2, 3 & 4. (C)Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all

Correct Answer :

Services Marketing

Question 1

Which is not the element of Services:

(A) People (B) Physical Evidence (C) Place (D) Process

Correct Answer :

Question 2

Elements of Marketing are:

1. Product 2. Price 3. Place 4. Promotion 5. Process

(A) Only 1,2,3,5 (B) Only 1,2,3,4 (C) Only 2,3,4,5 (D) all

Correct Answer :

Question 3

The Services Triangle consist of:

1. Company 2. Employee 3. Customers

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 4

The Advertisement should be:

1. Informative 2. Persuasive

3. Reminder 4. Reinforcement

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 5

Types of promotion can be of:

1. Advertising 2. Personal Selling 3. Publicity 4. Sales Promotion

(A) Only 1, 2 & 3. (B) Only 2, 3 & 4. (C) Only 1, 2 & 4. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 6

About Promotion incorrect statement is / are:

(A) Service providers should aim to promote their services in order to eliminate the elements of this perceived risk.

(B) Promotion of service offers can be carried out in isolation.

(C) Service personal and other customers also participate in the promotion process.

(D) Customer relies more on subjective impressions rather than concrete evidence.

Correct Answer :

b) B

Question 7

Match the followings:

I. guaranteed Pricing	(a)Quite similar to diversionary pricing.
II. Loss leader Pricing	(b)Relatively low initial entry price.
III. Offset pricing	(c)Payment is to be made only after the results are achieved.
IV. Penetration Pricing	(d)An initial low price is charged in the hope of getting more business at subsequently better prices.

(A)I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (B) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

(C) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c (D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-a

Correct Answer :

Question 8

Statement about Diversionary pricing is / are:

1. Refers to a low price which is quoted for a basic service to attract customers.

2. Example like a restaurant may offer a basic meal at a low price.

(A) Only 1. (B) Only 2. (C) Both (D) none.

Correct Answer :

Question 9

Statement about differential or flexible pricing is /are:

1. Used to reduce the `perishability' characteristic of services.

2. Used in hotels, airlines, telephones where there is the concept of season and off-season and peak hours.

3. Place differential used in rent of property-theatre seat pricing.

(A) Only 1 & 2. (B) Only 2 & 3. (C) Only 1 & 3. (D) all.

Correct Answer :

Question 10

Which is not the characteristic of service:

(A) Intangibility (B) Inseparability (C) Homogeneity (D) Perishability

Correct Answer :

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Management Question Bank E1 E2

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